Indeed, this is the most difficult wording of To Theodore to explain. For, in Strom. 7.51, of course, Clement rather explicitly explains how the Christian "gnostic" is to behave with respect to oaths, and he makes it clear that no deception is permissible. "He will neither lie nor commit perjury so as to wrong the Deity....The Gnostic swears truly..." Indeed, the Gnostic is not to swear at all, or to lie, even on pain of death: "And so he swears not even when asked for his oath; nor does he ever deny, so as to speak falsehood, though he should die by tortures."
It is, however, somewhat incongruous to read 7.52 immediately after, and it seems like Clement is trying to admit that there may be exceptions, or even to have it both ways. 7.51 says "Nor yet will he lie or commit any transgression, for the sake of the neighbour whom he has learned to love, though he be not on terms of intimacy." Yet Clement immediately follows this up with "But for the benefit of his neighbours alone, he will do things which would not have been done by him primarily, if he did not do them on their account," in 7.52.
We shouldn't eliminate the possibility that Clement sometimes talked out of both sides of his mouth, or tried to whitewash his teachings.
Nevertheless, lying under oath also seems like a pretty severe violation of Clement's teachings, so I admit it is unusual, and can't be easily explained away, given the texts that we have.
Nevertheless, I can at least refer to Book 1, where Clement writes
[The Lord] agreed that “those who were capable of receiving” should share in the mysteries of God and in that holy light. Further, he did not reveal to the people in the street what was not for them; only to a few, to whom he knew it to be apposite, those who could accept the mysteries and be conformed to them….If anyone says that it is written in Scripture: “There is nothing hidden which shall not be revealed, nothing veiled which shall not be unveiled,” he must listen to us too when we say that in his pronouncement he foretold tha the hidden secret shall be revealed to the one who listens in secret and all that is veiled, like the truth, shall be shown to the one who is capable of receiving the traditions under a veil, and that which is hidden from the majority shall become clear to a minority….[T]he mysteries are transmitted mysteriously, so that they may be on the lips of speaker and listener—or rather not in their voices at all, but in their minds. (Strom. 1.13(1))
Since our tradition is not held in common or open to all, least of all when you realize the magnificence of the Word, it follows that we have to keep secret “the wisdom which is imparted in the context of a mystery,” taught by God’s Son….Even now I am careful (in the words of Scripture) about “throwing pearls down in front of pigs, in case they trample them underfoot and turn to attack you.” It is difficult to present arguments which are really pure and lucid, and concern the true light, to people who are like pigs in their lack of education….”The unspiritual person does not receive the gifts of God’s spirit; they are folly to him.” “The wise do not produce in public the things which they discuss in council.” But “announce from the housetops what you hear whispered in your year,” says the Lord. He is telling us to receive the secret traditions of revealed knowledge, interpreted with outstanding loftiness and, as we have heard them whispered in our ears, to pass them on to appropriate people, not to offer them to all without reserve, when he only pronounced thoughts in parables to them. (Strom. 1.55-56(12))
If Clement writes often of speaking the truth, he writes nearly as often of veiling the truth, revealing it partially, or mystically.
Granted, however, that ordering Theodore to deny the authorship of Secret Mark directly, under oath, is surprisingly deceitful. And so, having spent much effort arguing my way to the brink of genuine Clementine authorship, I'm going to step back, and admit that Clementine authorship remains problematic. Why am I doing this? Because I think Smith made a foundational mistake. His greatest mistake was not reading both baptismal and sexual theology into Secret Mark (though those were indeed mistakes); instead, his greatest mistake came first. Smith determined, based on vocabulary, that the letter was authentic Clement. But we now know that the vocabulary is almost too Clementine to be true. This would have been sufficient to fool Smith.
So, if the letter is not authentic, that must mean the critics are right, yes? But not so fast--it doesn't mean that at all. The letter need not be a modern forgery; in fact it's far more likely it was an ancient forgery (as forgeries of Christian authors were quite common in the ancient era.)
But even if it's ancient, we know it has to date to a later period--the fourth or fifth century, right? Again, not so fast--we need not fast-forward two centuries to find an appropriate millieu for To Theodore. We already have one, right after Clement's time, namely...among the Origenists! The Origenists are the perfect source for an inauthentic Clementine letter--they were both sympathizers with Clement, but also went beyond him, extending the Noble Lie much further than he would have deemed permissible. This is exactly the kind of school we might expect to produce a letter like To Theodore.
In fact...we don't even know it was a forgery at all! What we really have is an eighteenth-century document, claiming to have found a letter among Clement's letters. There's nothing to indicate the header of the copy of the letter, as Smith found it, dates to the ancient era. Instead, someone--an eighteenth-century writer--simply found To Theodore among the letters of Clement, and they noted as such on the copy they made in the Voss book.
Now, to be sure, the letter is exceptionally Clementine. This could be the deliberate work of an ancient forger--but it could also simply be the work of an ardent reader or follower of Clement, paying homage to the wisdom, words, and style of his teacher and predecessor. Indeed, isn't this a much more likely scenario than one in which a fourth- (or fifth-) century scholar delved deeply into the writings of Clement of Alexandria, and produced a bogus letter, perfectly imitating Clementine style, simply in order to fight off some still-lingering heresies of that later time?
So, under my scenario, such a letter could easily have found its way into a collection of Clement's genuine letters. If this collection belonged to an Origenist, it's likely it was located somewhere in Palestine--perhaps in Caesara itself. It eventually made its way to Mar Saba, probably for safekeeping, perhaps during the Byzantine-Persian wars, though perhaps also in the early centuries of Muslim rule (or even during the Crusades). 1500 years after the letters were written, a visitor or monk at Mar Saba sorted through them, trying to preserve what he could, and found To Theodore. He began to transcribe it, but stopped after he ran out of room--or, perhaps, stopped after reading something unexpected in the letter. Perhaps he reacted to it with the same shock as Jerome reacted to Origen's teachings.
Annick Martin , in a paper delivered at a Quebec conference about the Gospel of Thomas and Nag Hammadi, suggests that the Mar Saba letter may be a product of the Origenist Movement.
ReplyDeleteNB The paper is in French
On the other hand, “Clement” never says to Theodoros that he should lie. Any suggestion that he actually encourages Theodoros to lie is based on the assumption that the denying also implies lying. This really comes down to how you interpret the text.
ReplyDeleteThanks Andrew--I had completely forgotten about this! It seemed like a familiar idea...I'll be sure to read as much of Martin's paper as I can now (with my very bad French).
ReplyDeleteRoger--agreed, the exact meaning is very important here. Nevertheless, it's also hard to imagine why Clement thought anyone would have to deny the authorship of Secret Mark under oath.
Hi The_cave!
ReplyDeleteI was not suggesting that Clement encouraged Theodoros to deny the authorship of Secret Mark on oath. This comes from Smith’s translation of the passage, where the authorship should be denied. As this sounded so strange, Smith preferred to think that the existence of the gospel should be denied (calling it a secret gospel). But I follow the IMO more reasonable translation (both from the point of the language and of the content) which Scott Brown suggests (and which Smith acknowledged as a possible translation) and that is to deny that the Carpocratian gospel is the Gospel of Mark. This would mean that Clement is saying to Theodoros to deny, even on oath, that the Gospel which the Carpocratians possess is the true gospel of Mark. According to Clement that gospel is instead a simple forgery done by Carpocrates, and to deny that a forgery is the true Gospel which Mark wrote is NOT to encourage Theodoros to lie, but to tell the truth (according to Clement’s view of the truth).
Roger--yes, thanks for pointing this out. I'm not an expert on Greek, and so I try to avoid weighing in on matters like this. I think Brown is right to question Smith's translation, but I'm not convinced Brown does a completely correct job, either. Still, it's good that he calls some of Smith's decisions into question. Even with Brown's translation, it's a little confusing, since (pseudo?)Clement goes on to add that "the light of the truth should be hidden from those who are mentally blind", which is again slightly at odds with other things Clement says. Nevertheless, as I've pointed out above, Clement is kind of self-contradictory on this subject, so it's not clear how far we should trust Clement on the subject of truth-telling.
ReplyDeleteSo, perhaps Clement is trying to tell Theodore to deny that the Carpocratians have used any portion of the Secret Gospel, or that Mark is the author of their gospel in any true sense--arguably, from Clement's standpoint, Mark is in fact not the author of their gospel in any true sense. But I can't really commit to this reading without a better understanding of how to translate lines 39 and 40 of To Theodore (transliterating using a hybrid form of Greeklish):
oude proteinousin autois ta kateYeusmena sugCwrhteon tou markou einai to mustikon euaggelion, alla kai meQ orkou arnhteon.
The meaning here seems to me to be that one should not "concede [that] Mark is the secret/mystical gospel" but I don't know for certain. It's possible that this means Theodore should deny that the Secret Gospel is canonical Mark--which would also be true. We don't really know exactly what the Carpocratian "falifications" were, but maybe they were claiming that canonical Mark was just a revision of the Secret Gospel--and hence their own revised version of the Secret Gospel was no different in kind.
In my translation of this letter into Swedish I have consulted those who are far better at Greek than I am. As far as I can tell this particular line dealing with the Carpocratians should reasonably best be translated as:
ReplyDelete“Nor should one, when they put forth their inventions, admit that it is Mark’s mystic gospel, but one should deny it on oath.”
This might not be the best English, however fairly close to the Greek, I think. Since this anyway is a possible translation (and to my mind the most likely), one cannot really use the argument that Clement could not have written this. Because if you argue that Clement would never have encouraged Theodoros to lie, why then not translate it so that he is not encouraging Theodoros to do so?
Isn't the whole problem based on the assumption that Clement should have been consistent in all of his writings? Why, because he was an "orthodox" Church father (even with his gnostic tendencies)?
ReplyDeleteFor an analogy, I think that in recent Pauline studies many have begun to suspect that the difficulties in constructing a coherent Pauline theology is simply because he never was coherent in his thinking. E.g. trying to polish the differences in Paul's argumentation between Romans and Galatians, not to forget the difficulties in understanding Romans in itself (especially chapters 11-13), is due to Paul 1) writing different things for different audiences in different letters, and 2) wanting to have it both ways (especially in Romans), both holding that his Christ-message is something unique, and holding that there is something worthwhile in his Judaic roots, that the Law is both not discarded even when it is.
Consequently, if Clement says one thing in Strom. (who was his intended audience?), and another in Theod., we could conclude that he has different things to say to different people, and/or that he really wants to make it work both ways, as the_cave has suggested.
I cannot help but see enormous methodological difficulties in concluding that a writing is "too much like its alleged author" for it to be from the alleged author. How much is "too much"? Do we usually draw this kind of conclusion in Ancient studies, or is Theod. an exception? What other ancient works have been deemed inauthentic because they resemble "too much" some other ancient works. I may be wrong, but my understanding is that pseudo-Pauline letters, various endings to the Gospel of Mark, etc. are deemed pseudographa because they do not resemble their comparison material in the least. That's much more unproblematic argument, as I see it.
2 Brief Comments.
ReplyDeletea/ The language of Clement's instruction to Theodore about denying on oath may in itself be ambiguous. However the succeeding justification For not all true are to be said to all men ... increases ones suspicion that the proposed denial on oath is at least misleading.
b/ Even if Theodore's denial on oath is not intended to be perjury, the idea still seems odd. Did debates between Christians of differing views c 200 CE normally involve the disputants swearing oaths as to the validity of their theological positions ?
Of course I am late to the party but on the point that Clement might have been denying that the gospel had Mark as its author, there is an ancient precedent or parallel for this. The Marcionites emphatically denied that 'Paul' or any human being actually wrote their gospel It was a 'unspeakable' revelation from heaven with no human author only a 'vessel' who received that revelation.
ReplyDeleteI know scholars generally have no imagination to speak of. But isn't this already at the outset the beginnings of a parallel for what is being described in To Theodore?
Again if people don't have an imagination maybe they should borrow one from a friend.
Of course the one point that is sticking out in everyone's head is that 'Paul' HAS TO BE the name of the author of the gospel of the Marcionite even if the Marcionites denied it.
Well here are a handful of points which I hope open the minds of at least some people:
a) Dr. Ruairidh Boid of Melbourne University is my source for the idea that the term Marcionite (Marqione in Aramaic and used in Aphraates means 'those of Mark' in Jewish Aramaic.
b) the opening title/opening words of the Marcionite gospel resemble Mark 1:1 (i.e. it is loosely identified as the 'gospel of the Lord' in Tertullian
c) Hippolytus explicitly references those who claim that the gospel of the Marcionites is the 'true' Gospel of Mark (which he of course denies).
d) a number of the Marcionite readings which Tertullian disputes actually resemble parallel western readings in Mark
e) most important of all, just put on your imagination cap and listen to the manner in which Marcus the Marcionite in Adamantius' Dialogue argues for his gospel without a human author at the point Adamantius in this notoriously corrupt text has Eutropius the pagan arbitrator ask whether Peter wrote the gospel (can anyone guess what text is at the center of the debate?????)
What follows is lifted from Roger Pearse's site:
The Marcionite Marcus replies “Christ, not Peter, wrote the gospel.”
“What right has Marcus to say that Christ wrote the gospel. The Gospel writer did not refer to himself; he refers to him who he is proclaiming – Jesus Christ.”
Rufinus: “Deinde quomodo dicit Christum scripsisse euangelium? Non enim tanquam de se scribens loquitur scriptor euangelii, sed tanquam alium et qui extra se sit praedicans Christum.”
Greek: “πῶς δὲ λέγει τὸν Χριστὸν γεγραφηκέναι τὸ εὐαγγέλιον? οὐ γὰρ ὡς περὶ αὑτοῦ ὁ γράψας τὸ εὐαγγέλιον ἐσήμανε, σημαίνει ὃν κηρύσσει Χριστὸν Ἰησοῦν,…”
Pearse's attempt from Greek: “But how does he say that the Christ has written the gospel? For he who wrote the gospel did not indicate himself, he indicates the one he is proclaiming – Christ Jesus.”
I know that scholars like everything to be 'neat' and certain but there is clearly a parallel to the idea that Clement from the Alexandrian See of St. Mark might have acted like the Marqiyone in denying a human author to the gospel of Mark at the heart of their community. If the readers can't allow for the idea that the Marcionites could be followers of Mark deliberately misrepresented by the Catholic authorities at the very least it provides a PARALLEL to the idea that Christians denied that gospels had human authors, no?
And on the issue of a Christian - modern or otherwise - saying one thing and doing another, isn't Ted Haggard example enough?
ReplyDeleteHuman beings are capable of speaking out of both sides of their mouth. I am sure there are Muslims who have declared that Islam is the religion of peace and in the next breath argued that America had it coming with 9/11. You will also never hear a Jew acknowledge the punishment the Talmud has set aside for Jesus. No, if you pick up a book on Jewish attitudes about Jesus you get rabbis coming out and saying he was a mensch! Does this mean the Talmud doesn't say that Jesus is forever boiling in hot something or other? Does this means that Jews don't believe that Jesus is boiling in hot something or other? No it means that humans are capable of being inconsistent in the name of religion.
I think scholars should just get out more! The basic premise of all religions is that almost any act which is understood to protect or safeguard holiness or holy truths is justified. Denying something on oath is small potatoes compared with the other examples from history. I can recall a number of Christian communities who were deemed heretics for making it permissible to deny core beliefs of Christianity in times of persecution. Many of these same communities thought it acceptable to restore leaders of their community to positions of authority.
So, OMG Clement told people - under historical circumstances we no longer have any clue about - to say that the Gospel which is according to Mark isn't according to Mark even under oath! I guess the letter is a fake because Clement is acting like a real human being.
No more idealized fables about these Fathers being connected at the hip with the Holy Spirit. Call the police, we've discovered a forgery!
And Cave (I don't think I have ever called anyone 'Cave' before), I have been following your site for some time and enjoying your posts. I notice that you rarely reference Carlson's theories on Secret Mark. I don't know if you do this out of politeness to Criddle (because he seems to be here more than he is over at Hypotyposeis these days).
ReplyDeleteI guess my question is - what do you make of the issues Viklund has raised about Carlson forger's tremor argument?
There's been a lot of talk about Jeffrey here which is fine given that you started blogging the day after the SBL conference ended (where Jeffrey had a session). Yet the only important book ever written in favor of forgery is Carlson's book. Just wondering what wonderful insights your hiding in your 'cave.'
Maybe we could even see you do a whole series of posts on your impression of Carlson's work.
Oh I was looking for Carlson's Synoptic Problem site, but I ended up here again at Synoptic Solutions. Drat. But you're AGAINST authenticity and Carlson is FOR authenticity.
ReplyDeleteStrange that I would end up here. I thought I was at the right site because I saw Criddle's name in the search result. Anyway I found the correct result with my second attempt -
http://www.hypotyposeis.org/synoptic-problem/
You must get this 24924 times a day! Any love this site. You're such a great Thinker.
Hi Stephan--I haven't considered Carlson's arguments for several reasons, the first being that I don't have enough time! Jeffery's seemed more comprehensive, therefore I tried tackling them first.
ReplyDeleteSecondly, one of Carlson's arguments involves Criddle's word study, which I find well-performed, even if not completely convincing. Still, Criddle's study is the best evidence suggesting a Clement-imitating author, rather than Clement himself, so I have little argument against it.
Next, a number of Carlson's arguments have already been countered by others (Scott Brown among them) so there's less work to do.
And finally, Carlson is working hard at becoming a legitimate, credentialed biblical scholar--something I'm not, nor working towards. While I might completely disagree with his conclusions, I at least respect where he's coming from.
Nevertheless, this might be a good time to take up Carlson's book, so maybe I'll try that soon. I certainly strongly disagree with several of his arguments.
Since you asked, yes, I think Viklund's analysis is quite good. I wasn't very persuaded by Carlson's handwriting analysis in the first place (though he made a good effort) but Viklund has done a good job of providing a counter-argument that is at least as strong as Carlson's presentation. I should probably re-read Viklund a little more carefully and thoroughly, though.
Let me add that it shouldn't be surprising if there are similarities between Smith's handwriting and the handwriting of the Mar Saba author. Smith wrote in a Western script; so did the author of the Mar Saba manuscript (not surprising, really, given that he's writing in a book by a 17th century Dutch scholar! No doubt the author was not originally from Mar Saba.
(The similarities are by no means complete, however--there is just no way to make Smith's lambdas resemble the Mar Saba manuscript's lambdas, for example. The simplest explanation is that the Mar Saba manuscript was indeed written by a different Western hand--i.e someone who was not Morton Smith.)
(BTW there is an error I have just discovered in Carlson's book: towards the bottom of p. 46, he refers to "Figure 5A" but really he means Figure 6A.)
Well as I have said many times in many ways, this shouldn't be about Carlson or Smith but the Mar Saba Letter itself. You are doing a wonderful job here provoking thoughtful discourse. Thanks for all the great work
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